Cool_Cuz
06-24-2008, 03:07 AM
A friend of mine was recently dx'd pre-d with a two-hours-after-a-meal glucose level of 180 mg/dL. They didn't tell her very much about it, and she hasn't started on any medication.
Yesterday she was feeling sick and shakey, and she suggested that she may be low.
My first reaction was to snap at her--she's never really listened when I've rambled on about D when I learn new things, so she knows very little about it...doesn't really even know the difference between T1, T2 and Pre-D. However, I realize that I don't know so much about PD, so maybe I'm wrong.
From what I understand, insulin RESISTANCE cannot result in a LOW, unless medication is applied. Am I correct in this, or is there another factor I'm not considering?
Yesterday she was feeling sick and shakey, and she suggested that she may be low.
My first reaction was to snap at her--she's never really listened when I've rambled on about D when I learn new things, so she knows very little about it...doesn't really even know the difference between T1, T2 and Pre-D. However, I realize that I don't know so much about PD, so maybe I'm wrong.
From what I understand, insulin RESISTANCE cannot result in a LOW, unless medication is applied. Am I correct in this, or is there another factor I'm not considering?