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Cool_Cuz
06-24-2008, 03:07 AM
A friend of mine was recently dx'd pre-d with a two-hours-after-a-meal glucose level of 180 mg/dL. They didn't tell her very much about it, and she hasn't started on any medication.

Yesterday she was feeling sick and shakey, and she suggested that she may be low.

My first reaction was to snap at her--she's never really listened when I've rambled on about D when I learn new things, so she knows very little about it...doesn't really even know the difference between T1, T2 and Pre-D. However, I realize that I don't know so much about PD, so maybe I'm wrong.

From what I understand, insulin RESISTANCE cannot result in a LOW, unless medication is applied. Am I correct in this, or is there another factor I'm not considering?

yeswe'rebothD
06-24-2008, 11:36 AM
Many many people who are insulin resistant also have lows. This is a typical manifestation of Pre-D and eventually Type 2. In fact, hypoglycemia is a known 'risk factor' for type 2 diabetes. Since the body is insulin resistant, it has to keep dumping more and more insulin in the blood to handle the food intake. If not enough protein is being consumed, there will be too much insulin after the food has been handled, resulting in a low. It's a vicious cycle and can be pretty frustrating, at the Pre-D stage is best handled with a VERY well balanced diet.